CPD Quiz results

Optometry Board of Australia: Up to 19.5 9T

Answers to questions 20–39

Click back to quiz questions and answers 1–19 >

Corneal carpentry (T) – Prof Rasik Vajpayee

Q20.
Which of the following is a common cause of recurrent corneal erosion?
A. Posterior polymorphous corneal dystrophy
B. Epithelial basement corneal dystrophy
C. Macular corneal dystrophy
D. Salzman nodular degeneration

B. Epithelial basement corneal dystrophy

Q21.
Which of the following can NOT be treated with laser PTK?
A. Recurrent corneal erosion
B. Salzman nodular degeneration
C. Superficial corneal scars
D. Central corneal guttata

D. Central corneal guttata

Q22.
To what depth is corneal tissue ablated for treatment of recurrent corneal erosion?
A. <10 microns
B. 10–15 microns
C. 20 microns
D. 50 microns

A. <10 microns

Interesting cases from the last year – lessons to learn and share (T) – Dr Lewis Levitz

Q23.
If a patient has unexplained visual loss you should:
A. Always do a field test
B. Take a history of migraine
C. Ask about risk factors for heart disease
D. Ask to them come back when they feel better and are less stressed
E. A, B and C are correct

E. A, B and C are correct

Q24.
Patients with giant cell arteritis can be investigated with which of the following?
A. PET scan
B. MRI scan
C. Ultrasound
D. Biopsy of temporal artery
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Q25.
Patients with amaurosis fugax:
A. Should be referred to a TIA clinic
B. Should be treated as if they had a minor stroke
C. Should be assessed as having a retinal migraine until proved otherwise
D. Are probably imagining things and it will almost certainly get better
E. A and B are correct

E. A and B are correct

Red flags in paediatric eye disease (T) – Dr Anu Mathew

Q26.
A 3-year-old develops an acute onset esotropia. Which of the following features would prompt you to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist urgently?
A. The child has been squinting and adopting a head posture
B. The esotropia measures worse in distance than at near
C. Cycloplegic refraction of +4DS in both eyes
D. There is limitation of abduction and the child has been more cranky
E. B and D

E. B and D

Q27.
When should a child have a dilated examination and cycloplegic refraction?
A. There are parental concerns about vision in a preverbal child
B. There is a family history of refractive error or strabismus
C. An 8-year-old child’s vision improves to 6/6 with subjective refraction
D. A and B
E. All of the above

D. A and B

Q28.
A 7-year-old child presents to you for vision screening as he is having problems with reading at school. In the waiting room, he is playing a game on his iPhone without any difficulties. Which of the following could be contributing to his learning problems?
A. Slow saccades
B. Longstanding right amblyopia (but 6/6 vision in his left eye)
C. Low hypermetropia (+1DS in both eyes)
D. Left Duane syndrome with 8 PD esophoria in primary position
E. None of the above

E. None of the above

Q29.
A 4-year-old was given glasses for high myopia based on cycloplegic refraction (-6DS in both eyes). His fundus examination was normal. There is no significant family history of eye problems. He is reviewed at 3 months and his vision has not improved. What possible cause could account for this?
A. Underlying retinal dystrophy
B. Optic nerve hypoplasia
C. Poor compliance with glasses and amblyopia
D. Ocular albinism
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Are you seeing double? – Dr Christolyn Raj

Q30.
What are plausible causes of diplopia in the first month following cataract surgery?
A. CN4 palsy, anaesthetic-related, remanent cortical material
B. Consecutive strabismus, sensory strabismus, aniseikonia
C. Anaesthetic-related, decompensation, ischaemia
D. Sensory strabismus, cystoid macular oedema, CN3 palsy

C. Anaesthetic-related, decompensation, ischaemia

Q31.
What factors affect the outcome of alignment in sensory strabismus?
A. Size of strabismus and anomalous retinal correspondence
B. Type of strabismus and age of onset
C. Previous surgery and surgical technique
D. Baseline visual acuity and degree of amblyopia

D. Baseline visual acuity and degree of amblyopia

Q32.
a patient is suspected to have strabismus, what is important in the work-up for cataract surgery?
A. Ocular dominance, cover test
B. Ocular dominance, corneal topography
C. Ocular dominance, anomalous retinal correspondence
D. Ocular dominance, type of cataract

A. Ocular dominance, cover test

Q33.
What are the most common causes of strabismus seen in the ageing population?
A. Trauma, ischaemia, sensory
B. Decompensating phoria, sagging eye syndrome, ischaemia
C. Ischaemia, sensory tropia, amblyopia
D. Decompensating phoria, consecutive esotropia, trauma

B. Decompensating phoria, sagging eye syndrome, ischaemia

Getting high… – Dr Joe Reich

Q34.
For myopic laser the limitations of refractive laser are primarily set by:
A. Dioptric power
B. Corneal thickness
C. Concurrent astigmatism
D. None of the above

B. Corneal thickness

Q35.
Factors to be considered in myopic laser include:
A. The age of the patient
B. The pupil diameter
C. History of dry eye
D. Irregular astigmatism
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Q36.
In astigmatic laser the usual limitation is:
A. 1 dioptre
B. 2 dioptres
C. 3 dioptres
D. 4 dioptres

D. 4 dioptres

Retinal vascular occlusions and management options – Dr Eric Mayer

Q37.
Complications of high myopia include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Retinal detachment
B. Foveoschisis
C. Aqueous misdirection
D. Choroidal neovascularisation (CNV)

C. Aqueous misdirection

Q38.
Refractive options to correct high myopia of -15D include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Clear lens extraction
B. LASIK
C. Contact lenses
D. Spectacles

B. LASIK

Q39.
Interventions shown to reduce myopic progression include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Spending increased time outdoors
B. Low-dose atropine drops
C. Under-correction of myopia
D. Orthokeratology

C. Under-correction of myopia

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